Thanks again Todd for your prompt reply!

But do these waters now belong to tribes or do they now belong to the people of the state? If not the state, to whom do they now belong to, and how did they receive ownership of our public water ways (i.e. what ruling was it done under)?

I am having a little problem understanding what you just have posted. Can you "walk" me through this one more time and explain to me how this is legal under the U.S. Supreme court ruling of "Equal Footing Doctrine"?

Thanks,

Cowlitzfisherman